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Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by


A) inspection of the rash.
B) the type of cough.
C) the type of fever.
D) the incubation period.
E) the gender of the patient.

F) D) and E)
G) B) and D)

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The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving mostly Gram-positive cocci is


A) German measles.
B) measles.
C) mumps.
D) chickenpox.
E) shingles.

F) B) and E)
G) A) and E)

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The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is


A) aureus.
B) acnes.
C) epidermidis.
D) pyogenes.
E) saprophyticus.

F) C) and D)
G) A) and B)

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Why is it important to give the MMRV vaccine to healthy, non-immune contacts of people with immunodeficiencies?


A) The MMRV vaccine is a toxoid vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity.
B) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts.
C) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity.
D) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts.
E) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd trending.

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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Rubeola can be effectively prevented with the MMR vaccine. The child in this case has not received any vaccines, because he has been receiving chemotherapy. Why wasn't he given the MMR vaccine?


A) It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.
B) It is an inactivated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.
C) The MMR vaccine is known to cause complications such as autism, and this child already has enough problems with leukemia.
D) It is a toxoid vaccine-these vaccines contain deactivated microbial toxins; since the child is severely immunocompromised, the toxin used in the vaccine will damage all of his cells.
E) The patient is a child, so will not be able to tolerate any egg proteins that may be present in the MMR vaccine, which is produced in eggs.

F) A) and E)
G) A) and C)

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How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes?


A) It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.
B) It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.
C) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area.
D) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.
E) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.

F) B) and C)
G) D) and E)

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Which statement regarding Staphyloccocus aureus is FALSE?


A) MRSA strains that can be traced to hospitals and clinics are referred to as HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired MRSA) .
B) CA-MRSA strains have a group of genes that codes for a leukocyte-destroying leukocidin.
C) Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin.
D) MRSA strains are resistant to nearly all β-lactam antibiotics except ceftaroline, a new cephalosporin.
E) Some hospitals screen patients for MRSA when they are discharged so they do not take a MRSA strain home with them.

F) C) and D)
G) B) and C)

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The most serious consequence of rubella is


A) encephalitis.
B) birth defects.
C) meningitis.
D) deafness.
E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

F) C) and D)
G) B) and E)

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The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota.


A) water
B) amino acids OR water
C) lipids AND amino acids
D) water, amino acids, AND lipids
E) sebum OR amino acids

F) B) and E)
G) D) and E)

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Confirmation of the rubeola diagnosis can by made by


A) measuring the intensity of the rash.
B) presence of rubella antibodies in the blood.
C) detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa.
D) detecting rubeola viruses using a Gram stain.
E) treating the patient with antibiotics.

F) A) and D)
G) A) and B)

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Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci?


A) 7.5% salt
B) 0.5% HCl
C) 1.0% glucose
D) 5.0% mannose
E) 1.0% glucose AND 0.5% HCl

F) A) and C)
G) D) and E)

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Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that


A) it is a virus.
B) it needs oxygen for growth.
C) it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen.
D) it is non-motile.
E) it can only grow within host cells.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and D)

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Which of the following normal skin microbiota is a small yeast?


A) Staphylococci
B) Malassezia species
C) Diphtheroids
D) Candida species
E) Cutibacterium species

F) A) and E)
G) C) and D)

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Diaper rash (dermititis) can be caused by a number of factors. A common microbial cause is the fungus ________.


A) Malassezia furfur
B) Candida albicans
C) Microsporum gypseum
D) Cutibacterium acnes
E) Streptococcus pyogenes

F) C) and E)
G) B) and D)

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If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person


A) will be unaffected by the contact.
B) will develop a second case of chickenpox.
C) will develop shingles.
D) will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles.
E) will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin.

F) A) and D)
G) B) and E)

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Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis?


A) Leukocidin
B) Hemolysin
C) Granulation enzyme
D) Coagulase
E) Lipase

F) B) and D)
G) A) and B)

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In the laboratory, rubella virus, VZV, rubeola virus and Rickettsia rickettsii must be cultivated in host cells. Candida albicans does not need to be cultured in cells-why?


A) Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite.
B) This fungus is an aquatic organism that requires fresh water for culture.
C) Candida species are yeasts and require a medium such as bread for culture.
D) Candida albicans is an obligate intracellular parasite.
E) Yeasts are autotrophs and are thus able to grow independent of other organisms.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture?


A) It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
C) It is resistant to multiple antibiotics.
D) It is an obligate anaerobe.
E) It is Gram-negative.

F) D) and E)
G) None of the above

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Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence?


A) It stains poorly with conventional dyes.
B) It is Gram-non-reactive.
C) It is an acid-fast bacterium.
D) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall.
E) It is a virus.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are


A) the skin.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) the genitourinary tract.
D) the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract.
E) the skin AND the respiratory tract.

F) None of the above
G) A) and D)

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